In a message dated 2/12/03 2:54:23 PM Pacific Standard Time, [log in to unmask]
writes:


> You would get the same argument with the Alsace Lorrain (sp?) area - over
> the centuries passed between Germany and France. If by your logic Hitler
> was perfectly justified in marching back to the Rhineland area then he was
> justified in marching back to Alsace Lorraine - which Germany lost after
> WW1, and retaking if from France.
>

Alsace-Lorraine was French until the French lost the Franco-Prussian war.  It
then became part of Prussia/Germany.  If the Rhinelanders wanted to be part
of Germany then they should have been allowed to do so and Hitler allowed
them to have their wish.  Hence his early popularity.  In Alsace-Lorraine -
are the people French or German or possibly a mix?  The UN supports a "right
of self-determination".  The concept is good and could have been applied to
the Rhineland (favoring Germany), Alsace-Lorraine (favoring France?), Kurds
(NOT wanting to be part of Iraq), East Timorese, Tibetans, Northern
Irish(stay in the UK), Southern Irish(Independence), etc, etc and more etc.
throughout the world.

The currently relevant point is of course, the Kurds.  I'd love to hear the
Bush admin clarify it's position on the Kurds and their future.

Wayne

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