<<However, the implication that the ancient Israelites of the
1400BC period held the same cosmology as their neighbors is
highly suspect.  They had a tendency to put astronomers and
astrologers in the same philosophical puka, and kill them.

But if you fast-forward to 800-700BC, when then there's a
correlation.  Mainly due to specific references of a corrupt
priesthood, involved in sun/idol/astrological worship.
Priests who no doubt, thought themselves well educated.>>

Whoa,

I find these comments offensive and bordering on being anti-Semitic.

Leonard Berkowitz
===================
Leonard S. Berkowitz
Perot Health Care Systems
(Harvard Pilgrim Health Care account)
voice: 617-509-1212
fax:   617-509-3737
pager: 781-226-2431




"Johnson, Tracy" <[log in to unmask]>@RAVEN.UTC.EDU> on 03/01/2002
10:13:38 AM

Please respond to "Johnson, Tracy" <[log in to unmask]>

Sent by:  HP-3000 Systems Discussion <[log in to unmask]>


To:   [log in to unmask]
cc:

Subject:  [HP3000-L] OT: Ohio wants to teach "2001" in 2002 and beyond

> From: Jim Phillips saith:
>
> "Wirt Atmar" <> writes:
>
> > Jim's interpretation would be implied only if you were a
> > Copernican. Most of the heathens, as well as the blessed,
> > were Aristotleans at the time.
>
> To which I reply: Nonsense!
>
> Aristotle wasn't born until 384 BC, and Copernicus wasn't
> even born until 1473 AD, so it would be quite impossible for
> Joshua and company to have been Copernicans.  Joshua assumed
> command circa 1407 BC, so the early Israelites couldn't really
> be called Aristotleans either.
>
> My guess would be they were Jewish...
>
> :-)

And they weren't called Jews for about 1,000 years after that.
But, like Wirt said earlier, the monikers used in this thread
are a form of shorthand...

However, the implication that the ancient Israelites of the
1400BC period held the same cosmology as their neighbors is
highly suspect.  They had a tendency to put astronomers and
astrologers in the same philosophical puka, and kill them.

But if you fast-forward to 800-700BC, when then there's a
correlation.  Mainly due to specific references of a corrupt
priesthood, involved in sun/idol/astrological worship.
Priests who no doubt, thought themselves well educated.

Digression...

Also the inference that people reading the Bible 400 years
ago understood that it meant anything regarding the position
of heavenly objects is a false assertion.  Such policy was
Church doctrine, set by decrees and councils (rife with Simony
and Jesuit zealots,) not Bible reading by the general public.

Popular dissemination of Bibles in the English speaking world
didn't really get off the ground until the King James (1611)
and Douay-Rheims (1609).  (The Douay version was published in
a rush to beat the King James version to the presses.)  Prior
to this period, public Bible reading was formally discouraged
and allotted to the clergy only, as most who attempted to
publish vernacular Bibles prior to this as Mr. Herrin implies,
usually met an untimely demise.

Therefore, it should have been more accurately said, "393
years ago ...

In regards to Velikovsky, all I found were ads for his books,
no explanations.

Tracy Johnson
MSI Schaevitz Sensors

* To join/leave the list, search archives, change list settings, *
* etc., please visit http://raven.utc.edu/archives/hp3000-l.html *

* To join/leave the list, search archives, change list settings, *
* etc., please visit http://raven.utc.edu/archives/hp3000-l.html *